Some Practice qs for Indian Polity section of GS paper 2011

INDIAN POLITY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Who was the President of the Republic of India who consistently described Indian secularism as ‘Sarv Dharma Samabhav’ ?(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan(b) Dr. Jakir Hussain(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad(d) Giani Zail Singh
Ans: a

2. Which part of the following is described as the soul of Indian Constitution ?(a) Directive principles of state policy(b) The preamble of the Constitution(c) Fundamental rights(d) None of the aboveAns: (b) Preamble is described as the spirit of the Constitution. It constitutes the philosophy of the Constitution embodying the ideals and aspirations of the people.

3. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following as full states of the Indian Union ?(a) Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh – Nagaland – Haryana(b) Nagaland – Haryana – Sikkim – Arunachal Pradesh(c) Sikkim – Haryana – Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh(d) Nagaland – Arunachal Pradesh – Sikkim – HaryanaAns: b. Nagaland – 1962, Haryana- 1966, Sikkim- 1975, Arunachal Pradesh- 1986

4. Article 359 of the Constitution of India deals with which one of the following?

(a) Declaration of financial emergency
(b) Promulgation of President's rule in a State
1.
(c) Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental right except a few during emergency
(d) Terms and conditions of service of Members of the Union Public Service Commission

Ans: c
Explanation: According to Article 359, the President by a proclamation can suspend all the Fundamental Rights except those under Articles 20 and 21.

5. Which of the following statements are NOT correct regarding the relationship between the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights?
1. All the Directive principles have been given precedence over the Fundamental Rights.
2. Some of the Directive Principles have been given precedence over some of the Fundamental Rights.
3. The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 gave primacy to the Directive Principles over the Fundamental Rights
4. The Supreme Court has held that the Balance between the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights is the basic structure of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 4 only (b) 1 only(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4Ans: b. Only the Directive Principles under Article 39(b) and Article39 (c) have been accorded precedence over Fundamental Rights under Article 14 and 19. This precedence was accorded by Constitution ( 25th Amendment) Act, 1971.

6. Which of the following are considered as basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
1. Republican and democratic form of Government2. Secular character of the Constitution3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : d. The Supreme Court in the Minerva mills Case held that the balance between the Directive principles and the Fundamental rights is the basic structure of the Constitution.
7. Which of the following are statements are correct?
1. Article 19 is automatically suspended if the national emergency is proclaimed on the grounds of armed rebellion
2. The Fundamental rights are justiciable
3. The Fundamental rights under Articles 20 and 21 can never be suspended
4. The Fundamental rights are human rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes: (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : b. According to Article 358, Article 19 is automatically suspended if the national emergency is proclaimed on the grounds of war or external aggression. Article19 is not automatically suspended if the National Emergency is proclaimed on the armed rebellion.

8. Which one of the following is not stated as a Directive Principle of State Policy in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Organization of village panchayats
(b) Uniform civil code for the citizens
(c).Separation of judiciary from executive
(d) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions

Ans: d.
Explanation: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is a Fundamental Right mentioned under Article 30 of the Constitution.

9. In which one of the following cases, the attempt to confer a primacy upon the Directive Principles as against the Fundamental Rights was declared as null and void by the majority of the Supreme Court?
(a) IndraSawhneyv. Union of India
(b) ShanKari Prasad v. Union of India
(c) Minerva Mills v. Union of India
(d) Bennett Coleman v. Union of India

Ans: c
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act had given primacy to all the Directive Principles over all the Directive principles. Declaring it as null and void in the Minerva Mills Ltd v/s Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is the basic structure of the Constitution.


1O.Consider the following statements in respect of an Ordinance promulgated by the President of India during recess of Parliament.
1.Such an Ordinance shall be laid before both Houses of Parliament and shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or before that period if disapproved by both Houses.
2.Such an Ordinance may be withdrawn at any time by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Explanation: It is provided in Article 123 (1) of the Constitution which consists of the provisions regarding the power of the President to promulgate ordinances.

11. Consider the following statements :

1.The Vice-President of India may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People.

2. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the expiration of the term of office of Vice-President shall be completed before the expiration of the term.

3.The Vice-President shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.

Which of the statements given ,above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: a. All the aspects are correct. Statements 1 is according to Article 67(b). Statement 2 is according to 68(1).Statement 3 is according to Article 67( c).

12. Consider the following statements—The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless :1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a 7 days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4th of the total number of members of that House2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2 3rd of the total membership of that HouseWhich of the statements given above is/are correct ?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: b. According to Article 61 , a resolution for the President’s impeachment is moved after atleast Fourteen days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4th of the total number of the membership of that House.

13. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India
2. He must have the same qualifications as are required by a judge of the Supreme Court
3. He must be a member of either House of Parliament
4. He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
which of these statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3 and 4
Ans: a. The Attorney General is not be a member of either house of the Parliament. He is not impeached but he can be removed by the President.

14. Directions: The following items consist of two statements, on labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes : (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Assertion (A) : Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R) : It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet.
Ans; b Both the statements are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.

15. Directions: The following items consist of two statements, on labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes :(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A(C) A is true but R is false(D) A is false but R is trueAssertion (A) : The council of ministers in the union of India is collectively responsible both to Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.Reason (R) : The members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be appointed as the ministers of the Union Government.
Ans: (d) According to the Article (75) the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the people. Ministers may be chosen from among members of either house and a minister who is a member of one house has a right to speak in and to take part in the proceeding of the other house he has no ‘right’ to vote in the house of which he is not a member Article (88).
16. Consider the following statements—1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the council of union ministers into three ranks.2. A members of Rajya Sabha can be chosen as a union minister and he enjoys the right to vote in the Lok Sabha.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(A) 1 only(B) 2 only(C) Both 1 and 2(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d. It is because of convention that India has a three types of ministers in the Council of Ministers. A member of Rajya Sabha can be appointed as minister but he has the right to vote only in the House of which he is a member.


17. ‘Vote on Account’ is a grant voted/passed by Parliament—(a) After the budget and grant has been voted/passed by Lok Sabha(b) Grant to manage the administrative work in Interim period till budget and grant for financial year are passed(c) Passage of account of expenditure is actually done during last year(d) Approval of account of public undertakingsAns: b. Article 116 of the Constitution contains the provisions regarding Vote on Account. It is passed only in the Lok Sabha.18. The defeat of Government in Rajya Sabha leads to—(a) Its dismissal by the President(b) Resignation by Prime Minister(c) Advice by President to Prime Minister to relinquish office(d) None of theseAns: d. A no-confidence motion is introduced and passed only in the Lok Sabha. The Council of Minister remains in office till it enjoys the confidence of the lower House.

19. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List I List II
a. Cut Motion 1. Mode of arriving at a decision
b. Guillotine 2. Demand to reduce allocation of funds in the budget
c. Division 3. Bring debate to a close
d. Point of Order 4. Put an end to the business of the day
5. Request for interpretation or enforcement of rules of procedure or constitution
a b c d a b c d
(A) 2 3 1 5 (B) 5 1 4 2
(C) 2 1 4 5 (D) 5 3 1 2
Ans: a. These are parliamentary procedures.


20. Which one of the following expenditures is NOT charged on the consolidated fund of India?(a) Salary and allowances of the President of India(b) Salary and allowances of the judges of High Court a State of India(c) Salary and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court of India(d) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: b. The salary and allowances of the judges of High Court is charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.

21. Which of the Committees of the Parliament has exclusively the members from Lok Sabha? (A) Committee on Public Undertaking
(B) Public Accounts Committee(C) Estimates Committee (D) Advisory Committee
Ans: c. The Estimates Committee is a parliamentary committee exclusively having the members from Lok Sabha. It has 30 members all from the Lok Sabha.

22. Which of the Committees of the Parliament is concerned with Policy making?
(A) Committee on Public Undertaking
(B) Public Accounts Committee(C) Estimates Committee (D) Advisory Committee
Ans: c. Estimates Committee is concerned with Policy making of the country.

23. Which of the Committees of the Parliament is concerned with putting a financial check on the executive? (A) Committee on Public Undertaking
(B) Public Accounts Committee(C) Estimates Committee (D) Advisory Committee
Ans: b. The Public Accounts Committee scrutinizes the report of the CAG and highlights the use/ misuse of public money by the executive. It is headed by a Member of Lok Sabha who is from opposition political party.

24. Which of the bills are introduced in the state legislature with the consent of the President?
(a) Money bill
(b) Financial bill
(c) A bill under Article 3
(d) A bill for reasonable restriction on Inter- State Trade or Commerce

Ans: According to Article 304(b), the state legislature can impose reasonable restrictions on Inter- State Trade and Commerce. A bill regarding this cannot be introduced in the State legislature without the prior recommendation of the President.

25. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—List-I List -II(a) Public Accounts committee Adhoc Committee(b) Committee on petitions Standing Committee(c) Joint committee on stock market scan Financial Committee(d) Department committees Functional CommitteeCodes : a b c d
(A) 1 4 3 2(B) 2 3 4 1(C) 3 4 1 2(D) 4 2 1 3Ans; c.

26. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
If the Chief Justice of India is to make a request the attendance at the sittings of the Supreme Court as an a hoc judge, of a Judge of a High Court duly qualified to be appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court
(a) only previous consent of the President of India is required . .

(b) previous consent of the President of India and consultation with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court are required
(c) only consultation with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court is required .
(d) neither previous consent of the President of India consultation with the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court is required.
Ans: b. It has been provided in Article 127(1) of the Constitution.

27.Consider the following statements :
Public Interest Litigation intends to
1. redress public injury
2. enforce public injury
3. protect diffused rights
4. reprimand the law - enforcing agency
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans: d
Explanation: PIL aims to ensure redressal of problems faced by the public and failure of the government to redress the problem. It protects the rights of the people who are deprived of such rights because of their socio- economic disabilities.

28. What does the term 'Epistolary jurisdiction' of the Court imply?
(a) Power to take suomoto action without a formal petition
(b) Relaxation in the Court procedures
(c) Hearing a case on Letter Petitions.
(d) Transferring a case to the constitutional bench
Ans: c
Explanation: The term 'Epistolary jurisdiction' was used for the first time by Justice P.N.Bhagwati and Justice Krishna Iyer in the Fertiliser Corporation Kamagar Union v/s Union of India. In this case only for the first time , the term PIL was also used by the judges.


29. Consider the following statements: 1. The mode of removal of a judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court. 2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court can not plead or act in any subordinate court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: c. According to Article 217(1) (b) a judge of the High Court is removed in the same manner, a judge of Supreme Court is removed. According to Article 220, No person who has held an office as a judge of the High Court shall plead or act in any Court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court and the other High Courts.

30.Which of the following is not the objective of ‘Public Interest Litigation’?
(a) To bring Justice to door step of weak
(b) Strategic arm of the legal aid movement for justice
(c) To establish the right of socially and economically downtrodden
(d) Justice for class or group

Ans: d. The Public Interest Litigation is the strategic arm of the legal aid movement which aims to bring justice to the doors of those who are disadvantaged and are unable to get justice because of their socio – economic disadvantage.

31.Directions—The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.Codes :(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights.Reason (R): The Supreme Court is not bound to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.Ans: c. Under Article 32 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court is bound to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights whereas the High Courts are not bound to issue writs. They can suggest some other alternatives also.

32. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court pertains to
(A) Issue of writs
(B) Entertaining appeals
(C) Arbitering centre- state disputes
(D) Giving advice to the President
Ans: c. Article 131 deals with the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court is the sole arbiter of disputes that may arise between the Centre and the State or the States themselves.

33 .Directions—The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.Codes :(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.(c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true.Assertion (A) – The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Fundamental Rights of the citizens.
Reason (R) – Under Article 32, the Supreme Court is bound to issue writs for the a enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
Ans: a. As the Supreme Court is bound to issue writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights, it is the guardian or the custodian of the Fundamental Rights of the individuals.

34. Consider the following statements :
1. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the people or person acting as such, shall not vote at any sitting of either House of Parliament or joint sitting of the Houses in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
2. A person is qualified to fill a seat in the Council of States or House of the People if he is not less than twenty-five years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only· (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither. 1 nor 2
Ans: a
Explanation: It is provided in Article 100 (1) of the Constitution. A person is qualified to contest for Rajya Sabha membership if he has attained the age of 30 years, while aperson is qualified to fill a seat in the House of the People if he is not less than twenty-five years of age.

35. Consider the following statements :
1. The Parliament by Law may appoint the Governor of a State as the Administrator of an adjoining Union territory.
2. If a Governor of a State is appointed to act as a Administrator of an adjoining Union territory, he shall exercise his functions as such Administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements.given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Explanation: As per Article 239(2) of the Constitution, the President may appoint the Governor of a state as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory and where a Governor is so appointed, he shall exercise his functions as administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.


36.Consider the following statements :

1. Under Article 169 of the Constitution of India Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of Legislative Council ofa State having such a Council or for the creation of such a Council in a State having no such Council. For this the only condition is that the Legislative Assembly must have passed resolution to that effect by a majority of the the total membership of the Assembly.

2.Under Article 171 of the Constitution of India, total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council shall not exceed one half of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2 .
Ans: a. Under Article 171 of the Constitution of India, total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council shall not exceed one – third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State. But it shall be not less than 40.


37. Which one of the following procedures valid for passing a Constitutional amendment seeking abolition of the VidhanParishad?
a. Resolution in the RajyaSabha and consent of each house of the Parliament by majority of the members present and voting
b. Resolution in the VidhanSabha by the majority the total membership of the house and by majority .of not less than two-third of the members of the house of the Parliament by the majority of members present and voting
c. Resolution in either house of the Parliament consent of each house of Parliament by absolute majority of the whole house, coupled with two third majority of members present and voting
d. Resolution in the VidhanParishad and consent of the VidhanSabha by simple majority, followed by consent of the each house of the Parliament by simple majority
Ans: b. Under Article 169(1), the Parliament can abolish an existing Vidhan Parishad on the request of the concerned State legislative Assembly.
38. Which of the bills are introduced in the state legislature with the consent of the President?
(a) Money bill
(b) Financial bill
(c) A bill under Article 3
(d) A bill for reasonable restriction on Inter- State Trade or Commerce
Ans: d. According to Article 304(b), the state legislature can impose reasonable restrictions on Inter- State Trade and Commerce. A bill regarding this cannot be introduced in the State legislature without the prior recommendation of the President.


39. What does the doctrine of 'Pith and Substance' that guides the operation of judicial review in India imply ?
(a) Distinguishing good and bad parts of an impugned law
(b) Examining whether the law making authority has acted within its jurisdiction or not
(c) Determining the extent of damage done by the law
(d) Establishing credentials of the petitioner
Ans: b.
Explanation: This doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court in the F.N. Balsara v/s State of Bombay case, 1951.

40.Consider the following statements :

1. The Parliament has the power to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List. But such a law can be made only when a resolution is passed by the Lower Houses of the Parliament authorising the Parliament to make such a law.
2. A resolution passed as stated above can be extended beyond one year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only .
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: b
Explanation: As per Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can authorise the parliament to make a law on any subject mentioned in the State list on the grounds of National Interest.

41. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the India are correct?
1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament.
2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Indian Constitution follows the constitution of Australia.
3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is parliament.
4. The government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the governor general.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 4 d. 3 and 4
Ans: c. The provision that residuary powers to be vested in the centre has been borrowed from the Canadian Constitution.

42.Which of the features are not the part and parcel of the Indian Federation?

1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State Government.
2. The Federal and State Governments have their own officials to administer their respective law and functions.
3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will.
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by the way of formation of new state/ states.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3
Ans: c. The provision that residuary powers to be vested in the centre has been borrowed from the Canadian Constitution.

43. Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional provisions relating to trade, commerce and intercourse in India:
1. Parliamentary may by law impose restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse between one state and another in the public interest
2. Bills imposing restrictions on the freedom of trade, commerce or intercourse within the state cannot be moved in 'the state legislature without the sanction of the President.
3. Parliament may enact any law giving or authorizing any discrimination to deal with a situation arising from the scarcity of goods in any part of Indian Territory
4. Trade and commerce within the state is a subject in the concurrent list
Which of these is/are correct?
a 1,2,3 and 4 b 3 and 4
c 1 and 3 d 2 only
Ans; a. Articles 302 and 304 deal with the restrictions to be imposed by the Parliament and the State Legislatures respectively.

44. Which committee was appointed to look at the question of state autonomy from the point of view of states?
(a) Banerjee Committee
(b) Raja Mannar committee
(c) Center state committee
(d) Setalvad Committee

Ans: b . Raja Mannar Committee was appointed by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969 to look at the question of State autonomy from the point of view of the States.


45. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) SanthanamCommittee :Panchayati Raj Finances
(b) BalwantRai Mehta Committee : Panchayats in Rajasthan
(c) Thungan Committee: Planning at the Block Level
(d) L.M.SinghviCommittee : Administrative arrangement for rural development programmes
Ans: c
Explanation: Santhanam Committee was set up in 1963 to look into the finances of the Panchayati Raj Institutions. BalwantRai Mehta was set up in 1957 to study the working of Community Development Projects and the National Extension Service. Thungan Committee was set up in 1988 to consider Constitution amendment. Singhvi Committee was set up in 1986 to prepare a concept paper on the revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions.


46. On which of the following subjects does the Finance Commission of a State constituted under the Part IX of the Constitution of India make recommendations to the Governor?

1. Distribution between the State and the Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes, duties , tolls and fees leviable by the State.

2. Determination of the taxes, duties , tolls and fees which may be assigned to or appropriated by the Panchayats.
3. Grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: a
Explanation: It is provided in Article 243I (1) ( a) of the Constitution which provides for the constitution of Finance Commission to review financial position of the Panchayats.

47.Which of the following is not correct regarding the State Election Commission?

a. The State Election Commission is appointed by the Governor.
b. The State election Commission is responsible for conducting local bodies’ elections
c. A member of the State Election Commission is removed in the manner the judge of the High Court is removed.
d. The state election commission prepares electoral roll for the Vidhan Sabha elections
Ans: d. The electoral roll for the Vidhan Sabha elections is prepared by the Election Commission of India.

48. Consider the following statements—1. In Part IX of the Constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.2. The Eleventh schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the state legislature and the panchayat just as the seventh schedule distributes powers between the union of India and the states.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(A) 1 only(B) 2 only(C) Both 1 and 2(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: d. Article 243D(3) provides for reservation of women in any seat by direct elections in every Panchayat. The nature of both the schedules is different. the subjects given in Part IX is discretionary in nature whereas the subjects mentioned under Schedule VII is constitutionally binding.

49. Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India :1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue direction for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving in connection with the affairs of the union but excluding the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) both 1 and 2(d) neither 1 nor 2Ans: a. If any proclamation of financial emergency under Article 360 is in operation, it is competent for the President of India to issue direction for the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of person serving in connection with the affairs of the union including the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

50.Which of the following statements regarding the Constitution amendment in the India are not correct?

1. The Constitution provides for multiple procedures for amendment.
2. The state legislatures are not empowered to initiate amendments.
3. Certain amendments have to be passed just by state legislatures.
4. There is a provision for Joint-sittings of parliament to solve disputes regarding Constitutional amendments.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a. 2 and 3 b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 4 d. 3 and 4
Ans: b. A Constitution al amendment bill can be initiated only in the Parliament and must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament. There is no provision for Joint sitting of both the House of the parliament in case of deadlock. Joint sittings are summoned only to remove deadlock on an ordinary bill or a financial bill.

51. Consider the following statements :
1. Zonal Councils have been established under an Article of the Constitution of India.
2. There is a provision under an Article of the Constitution of India that an inter - State Council can be established by the President.
3. The Union Home Minister is the ex officio Chairman of all the Zonal Councils.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only

Ans: c
Explanation: Zonal Councils were created by a parliamentary act. The State Reorganisation Act 1956 created five Zonal Council. The North East Zonal Council was created in 1971. Article 263 empowers the President to establish an Inter State Council.

52. Consider the following statements :
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed by the President on the grounds of proved misbehaviour after an inquiry conducted by the Supreme Court.
2. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union and the state shall be submitted to the Parliament by the CAG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: d
Explanation: The CAG is removed in the same manner as the judge of the Supreme Court is removed. The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India relating to the accounts of the Union shall be submitted to the President and relating the State shall be submitted to the Governor.

53 Which one of the following is the main function of the Central Vigilance Commission of India?

(a) To keep watch on the investigating agencies in the country

(b) To expedite the disposal of criminal cases pending in the courts

(c) To scrutinize the utilization of developmental funds sanctioned by the Government

(d) To inquire or cause an inquiry of alleged offence of a public servant '
Ans; d.

54 Consider the following statements :
1. The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.
2. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
3. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (.b) 2, 3 and 4
( c) 1. and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: b. Article 78 of the Constitution deals with the duties of the Prime Minister as respect to furnishing of information to the President. The President can’t address the Council of Minister to elicit specific information.

55. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 2,3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 d) 1,2 and 4
Ans: a. The election disputes can be heard in the High Courts.

56. Consider the following statements:
Which of the following are NOT correct regarding the Planning Commission?
1. It is headed by the Prime Minister.
2. It suggests on what machinery has to be employed for the implementation of the plan
3. It consists of the members of the Finance Commission also.
4. It’s status is that of an advisory body.
5. It is a Constitutional body.
Codes :
a) 2 and 3 b) 3 and 4
c) 3 and 5 d) 2 and 4
Ans: c. The members of the Finance Commission are not the members of the Planning Commission. It is an extra Constitutional non statutory body. It was created by a Cabinet resolution.

57. Directions—The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
Codes :(a) both a and r are individually true and r is the correct explanation of a(b) both a and r are individually true but r is not the correct explanation of a(c) a is true but r is false(d) a is false but r is true Assertion (A) : The number of the members of the Union Public Service Commission is prescribed in the Constitution of India.Reason (R) : The Union Public Service Commission was constituted under the provisions in the Constitution of India.
Ans: d. The President under Article 318 (a) of Constitution of India determines the number of members of the commission and their conditions of service and make provision with respect to the number of members. The UPSC was constituted under Article 315(1) of the Constitution.

58. Which is not correctly matched?
(A) Article 125 – Adhoc judges in the Supreme Court
(B) Article 226 – Writ jurisdiction of the High Courts
(C) Article 110 – Money Bill
(D) Article 108 – Joint session of Parliament

Ans: a. Article 125 deals with the Salaries etc. of the judges.

59.The resolution for the removal of Justice Saumitra Sen was introduced in the Parliament under which article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 124(1)
(b) Article 217(1)
(c) Article 217(2)
(d) Article 124(4)
Ans: c. Article 217(1) provides that a judge of a High Court may be removed in the manner provided in Article 124(4) of the Constitution.


60. The Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal has been set under which article of the Constitution?
(a) Article 260
(b) Article 261
(c) Article262
(d) Article 263
Ans: c. Article 262 provides that the Parliament by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use , distribution or control of river water or any river valley.

61. The Rangarajan Committee was formed to
(a) study the recommendations of the Election Commission.
(b) study the recommendations of the National Advisory Council
(c) study the recommendations of the National Development Council
(d) study the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

Ans: b. The Rangarajan Committee was formed to study the recommendations of the National Advisory Council on the proposed Food Security Bill.


62. Which of the following is a feature of the Women’s Reservation Bill passed in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) One- third of all seats in the Parliament and the State Legislatures will be reserved for women.
(b). One- third of all seats in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to be reserved for women.
(c) One- third of all seats in the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies will be reserved for women.
(d) One- third of all seats in the Parliament and the State Legislatures and the Panchayats will be reserved for women.
Ans: c. the proposed bill consists of provisions for reservation of women in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.


63 Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the National Integration Council?
(a) It is headed by the Chief Justice of India.
(b) It consists of 147 members.
(c) It held its first meeting in 1962.
(d) It is mainly aimed at suggesting means to combat the menace of communalism, casteism and regionalism..
Ans: a. the National Integration Council is headed by the Prime Minister.

64. Consider the following statements:
Which of the following are correct regarding the Punchi Commission recommendations?
1. A fixed term of five years for the Governor.
2. Supports the right of the Governor to give sanction to prosecution of ministers against the advice of the state government.
3. There should be extension of discretionary powers of the Governor under Article 163(2).
4. The Governor shall be removed only through impeachment by the State Assembly.
Codes :
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: d. The Punchi Commission recommended that a constitutional amendment be brought about to limit the scope of discretionary powers of the Governor under Article 163(2).

65. Consider the following statements:
Which of the following are correct regarding the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008?
1. The Gram Nyayalayas shall be established for every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group of contiguous Panchayats.
2. The Gram Nyalayas shall be static courts and shall exercise the powers of only civil courts.
3. The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are strictly judicial officers and will be deriving the same powers as First Class Magistrates working under High Courts.
4. The Gram Nyayalayas shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court.
Codes :
a) 1,2 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: b. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a “ Mobile Court” and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.
66. The motive of celebrating National Voters’ Day on 25th January is
(a) to fix a date to distribute election identity card to all the citizens.
(b) to motive people to vote and increase participation in the democratic process.
(c) to fix a date for registration of names in the electoral roll.
(d) All the above.
Ans: b. The date 25th January marks the foundation day of the Election Commission of India. The commemoration entails upon itself to motivate and inspire the younger lots to come up and get their names registered so that they take part in the democratic process of the country.

67. Directions—The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
Codes :(a) both A and r are individually true and R is the correct explanation of a(b) both A and R are individually true but r is not the correct explanation of a(c) A is true butR is false(d) Ais false but R is true Assertion (A) : Under the Right to Education Act, 2009, every chid aged 6-14 years of age shall have the right to free and compulsory education in a neighbourhood school till elementary education.Reason (R) : The Act is excessively input focussed rather than outcomes – oriented.
Ans: b. The Act is excessively input focussed rather than outcomes – oriented. Even though better school facilities, books, uniforms and better qualified teachers are important, their significance in the Act has been overestimated in the light of inefficient, corrupt and unaccountable institutions of education.

68.The 104th Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 2010 seeks to amend which Articles of the Constitution?
a) 217 and 222 b) 217 and 224
c) 124 and 224 d) 124 and 217
Ans: b. The 104th Constitution (Amendment) Bill, 2010 seeks to amend Articles 217 and 224 of the Constitution to increase the retirement age of High Court judges from 62 years to 65 years.

69. Directions—The following item consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
Codes :(a) both A and r are individually true and R is the correct explanation of a(b) both A and R are individually true but r is not the correct explanation of a(c) A is true butR is false(d) A is false but R is true Assertion (A) : Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission on Religious and Linguistic Minorities recommended 10 percent reservation for Muslims and 7 percent for other minorities in government jobs.
Reason (R) : The Commission has favoured Scheduled Caste status for Dalits in all religions.
Ans: d. Justice Ranganath Mishra Commission on Religious and Linguistic Minorities recommended 10 percent reservation for Muslims and 5 percent for other minorities in government jobs.

70.The proposed village courts to be set up by Rural Development Ministry proposes to;
(a) address grievances of the villagers against officers relating to Public Distribution System.
(b) address grievances exclusively relating to Integrated Rural Development Programme.
(c) address grievances exclusively relating to Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act..
(d) grievances relating to Integrated Rural Development Programme and MGNREGA.
Ans: c. The Rural Development Ministry proposes to set Village Courts to exclusively address grievances relating to MGNREGA.

71. In one of its judgements, the Supreme Court held that to force an individual to undergo polygraph, brain mapping and narco- analysis tests are violative of ___________ the Constitution.
(a) Article 21 and Article 22
(b) Article 21 and Article 20 (1)
( c ) Article 21 and Article 20 (2)
(d) Article 21 and Article 20 (3)
Ans: d. Article 21 talks about ‘Right to life’ whereas Article 20(3) provides that the State cannot compel an individual to provide self-incriminating evidence.

72. The three member committee to inquire into the alleged misbehavior of Justice Saumitra Sen comprised of
(a) Justice Markandey Katju, B. Sudarshan Reddy, Ram Jethmalani
(b) Justice Aftab Alam, Justice Mukul Mudgal, Fali Nariman
(c) Justice B. Sudarshan Reddy, Justice A. K. Ganguly, Justice Mukul Mudgal
(d) Justice B. Sudarshan Reddy, Justice Mukul Mudgal, Fali nariman
Ans; d

73. Which of the parliamentary Committee is an adhoc Committee?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(d) Estimates Committee
Ans; c. A Joint Parliamentary Committee is constituted to look into a special issue. It cease to exist after probing into the matter.


74. Which of the Fundamental Rights are exclusively enjoyed by the Citizens of India?
(a) Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Cultural and educational rights
(d) Equality before law and equal protection of laws.

Ans c: Cultural and educational rights also known as minority rights provided under Article 29 and 30 is exclusively enjoyed the citizens

75. In which case the Supreme Court gave the verdict that waiving of National Flag throughout the year in private building is a part of Freedom of Speech and expression?
(a) Balaji raghvan v/s Union of India case
(b) B. Emmanuel v/s State of Kerala case
(c) Maneka Gandhi v/s Union of India case
(d) Naveen Jindal v/s Union of India case
Ans: d.

76. Which of the following is NOT correct about Finance Commission?
(a) The members of the Commission are appointed by the President of India.
(b) It is to act as a balancing wheel of the Indian fiscal federalism.
(c) The qualifications of members of the Commission are determined by the President.
(d) It is constituted every 5 years as per the provisions of Article 280 of the Constitution.

Ans: c. The qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by an act of the Parliament.

77. Justice Ismail Commission was constituted to
(a) investigate Godhra violence
(b) study reservation for OBCs.
(c) study the problems of naxals in Jharkhand.
(d) investigate police excesses in prisons.
Ans: d


78. Vishakha and others case pertained to which one of the following?
(a) Discrimination against women in defence services.
(b) Reservation in promotion for the OBCs.
(c) Reservation for women in Government services.
(d) Sexual harassment of women at work places.

Ans: d. In the Vishakha and others v/s State of Rajasthan case 1997, the Supreme Court gave detailed directions on the subject, which guidelines are to be strictly maintained by all employers, public or private.

79. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted for the first time during the Thirteenth Lok Sabha
2. Margaret Alva was appointed as the Chairperson of the Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women after the formation of the Thirteenth Lok Sabha.
3. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women consists of 20 members of the Lok Sabha 10 members of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
( c ) 3 only ( d) None of these
Ans; c. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted for the first time during the Tenth Lok Sabha

80. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act has been derived from which part of the Constitution?

(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
( c ) Directive Principles
( d) Local Self Government
Ans- c. Article 41 provides for ‘Right to work, to education and public assistance in certain cases.


81. Before disqualifying a MP, the President of India shall obtain the opinion of which of the following?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Supreme Court
( c ) Solicitor General
( d) Election Commission
Ans: d

82. Consider the following statements on the implications of coalition politics in the states:
1. Coalition governments have weakened the position and influence of the Chief Ministers in the States.
2. Coalition governments have weakened the position of the bureaucracy in the State administration.
3. Coalition governments have adversely affected political homogeneity of the Council of Ministers.
4. The era of coalition politics expanded the scope of the discretionary powers of the Governors.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4.
( c ) 1, 3 and 4. ( d) 1,2,3 and 4.

Ans: c . Coalition governments no way change the position of the bureaucracy in the State administration.

83. In which of the following cases was the doctrine of prospective overruling adopted by the Supreme Court of India?

(a) Kehar Singh v/s Union of India case
(b) Keshavanand Bharti v/s State of Kerala case
(c) Maneka Gandhi v/s Union of India case
(d) Golak Nath v/s State of Punjab.
Ans: d. The basic meaning of prospective overruling is to construe an earlier decision in a way as to suit the present day needs. In India, it was for the first time applied in the Golaknath case which overruled the judgement laid down in the Sajjan Singh case and Shankari Prasad case.

84. Growth of regional political parties in India in the past few years can be attributed to which of the reasons?

1. Cultural basis.
2. Inability of the national parties to accommodate the regional demands.
3. Advent of multinational companies.
4. Emergence of new states.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4.
( c ) 1 and 4. ( d) 2 and 4.
Ans: a.

85. Which of the following electoral reforms has not been implemented till date?
(a) Bye- elections to be conducted within 6 months of the occurrence of the vacancy.
(b) Registration of Political Parties with the election Commission.
(c) Debar Income tax defaulters from contesting elections.

(d) Appointment of observers during elections.
Ans: c

86. Which of the following rights is not expressly mentioned in the Part of Fundamental Rights but has been upheld as so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?
(a) Equality before law
(b) Right against discrimination in Public employment.
(c) Right to form associations.

(d) Right to Freedom of Press.

Ans: d. Right to Freedom of Press is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, while the rest of the rights have been mentioned in Part III of the Constitution

87. Which State Assembly has recently passed a resolution requesting the parliament to create a second chamber for the State?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) TamilNadu
(c) Uttrakhand
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: b. The resolution passed by the TamilNadu State Assembly is under consideration of the Centre.


88. Consider the following statements :1. The judges (inquiry) bill 2006 contemplates to establish a judicial council which will receive complaints against Judges of the Supreme Court including the Chief Justice of India, High Court Chief Justices and Judges.2. Under the protection of women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 a woman can file a petition before a Ist class judicial magistrate.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
89. Consider the following statements :1. A money bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.2. The Council of States cannot reject a money bill nor amend it.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?(a) 1 only(b) 2 only(c) Both 1 and 2(d) Neither 1 nor 2Ans: b. A money bill can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

90. Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India ?1. Deputy Chairman of the planning commission.2. Chairman of the finance commission.3. Chief Ministers of the union territories.Select the correct answer by using the following codes.Codes :(a) 1 and 2 are correct(b) 2 and 3 are correct(c) 1 and 3 are correct(d) Only 1 is correctAns; b. The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is appointed by the Prime Minister.91. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court regarding its judgement ?(a) It can change the judgement(b) It cannot change the judgement(c) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement(d) Only the ministry of law can change the judgement
Ans: a. The Supreme Court can change/ revise its own judgement.

92. The function of the Protem Speaker is to—(a) Conduct the proceedings of Houses in absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker(b) Officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected(c) Swear-in members and hold charge till a regular Speaker is elected(d) Checks if the election certificates of the members are in order
Ans: c. The Protem Speaker is appointed by the President from amongst the newly elected members of the Lok Sabha. He conducts the oath to all the newly elected members of the Lok Sabha and conducts the election of the Speaker.

93. The electoral college that elects the Vice-President of India consists of—(a) Members of Rajya Sabha only(b) Elected members of both the houses of Parliament(c) Members of both the houses of Parliament(d) Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of statesAns; c. Article 66(1) provides for the election of the Vice- President.
94. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Steering Committee to oversee the functions of the National Authority Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)?(a) The President(b) The Prime Minister(c) The National Security Adviser(d) The Cabinet SecretaryAns; d. National Authority, Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) was set up by a resolution of Cabinet Secretariat dated 5th May 1997. The National Authority is headed by the Chairperson who is in the rank of Additional Secretary to the Government of India and is supported by a suitable Technical Secretariat to look after the various functions. A High Level Steering Committee under the Chairmanship of the Cabinet Secretary with Secretary (Chemical and Petrochemicals), Foreign Secretary, Secretary, Defence Research & Development, Defence Secretary and Chairman, National Authority as its other members oversees the functions of the National Authority.
95. A and B are the Indian Citizens who have gone to Nigeria. Z is the baby born to them in Nigeria. Z will be an Indian citizen by:
(a) Jus Soli (b) Jus Sanguine
(c) Registration (d) Naturalisation
Ans: b. The principle of Jus Sanguine holds that if a person is born outside the territory of India and the time of his or her birth, his one or both the parents are Indian citizens, the person will be an Indian citizen.

96. Which of the following are the exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha?
1. To introduce the money bills
2. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
3. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the council of ministers
4. To impeach the President
Choose the correct answer from the codes given:
(a) 1 and 2
( b) 2 and 3
( c) 1 and 3
( d) 1 and 4

Ans; a. In ratifying the emergency and in impeachment of the president, both the House has equal powers.


97.The chief minister of a state can be removed if:

1 A no- confidence motion is passed by the legislative assembly
2 A no- confidence motion is passed by both the houses of the state legislatures
3 A resolution is passed by a 2/3rd members of the legislative council or the Rajya Sabha
4 In the opinion of the governor, there is a constitutional breakdown of the constitutional machinery in the state
Choose the correct answer from the codes given:
(a) 1 and 2
( b) 2 and 3
( c) 1 and 3
( d) 1 and 4
Ans: d
98. The idea of the cooperative federalism indicates a constitution-
(a) Which would be both federal and unitary according to requirements of time and circumstances
(b) Where the general government is dependent upon the regional governments
(c) Where the regional government is subordinated to the general governments
(d) Where both general government and regional governments are coordinate and independent bodies
Ans; d. The aim of cooperative federalism is to develop coordination and cooperation between the Central and the State governments so that there will be no conflict and the goal of welfare of the people is achieved.

99. The basic problem in the working of the parliamentary system in India arises out of –
( a) Lack of cohesiveness and viable party system
(b) The absence of an efficient and independent bureaucracy
(c) Lack of clear constitutional provisions
(d) Weak political executive on account of its dependence on the legislature
Ans:a. The political parties are the veins and the arteries of a system.

100. Which of the following are included in article 78 of the Indian constitution, defining the duties of prime minister?
1 To communicate to the president all decisions of the council of ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the union and proposals for legislation
2 To take prior presidential sanction for the budget before submitting it in the parliament
3 To furnish the information called for by the president regarding administration of the affairs of the union
4 If the president so requires, to submit for consideration of the council of ministers a matter on which a minister has taken a decision without submitting the same for the consideration by the council beforehand.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: b

101. Which one of the following matters stands excluded from the jurisdiction of the Inter-State Council in India?
( a) Adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of water of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley
(b) Investigation and discussion of subjects in which some or all of the states or the union and one or more states have a common interest
(c) Enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between the states
(d) Recommendation on any such subject and in particular, recommendation for a better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject.
Article; a. Article 263 of the Constitution deals with the jurisdiction of the Inter- sate Council

My books on Indian Polity and Political Science ( Optional0

Dear Students,
I present you my books for Civil Services aspirants. One is titled " INDIAN POLITY AND CONSTITUTIONAL ISSUES" and the other is on Political Science ( optional) in two volumes. Both the books are by Arihant Publications.
Hope you will find it useful.
Kumud Ranjan Singh

Dear Students,

The results of the Preliminary exams are out. Congratulations to the successful candidates. For your benefit, i m giving some suggested readings which will help in your preparations for the main examination. In my next blog i ll be giving some model questions also. Keep in touch.

Kumud Ranjan Singh

Suggested Readings

POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS ( Optional)

The Mains syllabus is divided into 2 papers.

Paper- I

Section A- Political Theory and Thought: The broader areas
· Concepts and theories
· Indian Political Thought
· Western Political Thought

For the preparation of this section, the candidates may refer to the following books:

· Political Thought by C.L.Wayper
· A History of Political Theory by George Sabine.
· Politics by Andrew Heywood
· Foundations of Indian Political Thought by V.R.Mehta
· Indian Political Thought by V.P.Verma
· Political Theory: Ideas and Concepts by Sushila Ramaswamy
· Political Science Paper -I by Dr. Kumud Ranjan Singh (Arihant Publications)
· Political Theory by O.P.Gauba

Section B- Indian Government and Politics: The broader areas
· Indian Nationalist Movement
· Indian Constitution
· Functioning and challenges to the Indian Democracy


For the preparation of this section, the candidates may refer to the following books, magazines and newspapers:

· Our Constitution by Subhash kashya
· Constitution of India by P.M. Bakshi
· Modern India by Bipin Chandra
· Indian Constitutional Law by M.P.Jain
· Indian Polity and Constitutional Issues by Dr. Kumud Ranjan Singh Arihant Publications
· Frontline
· India Today
· Any leading national newspaper.


Paper- II

Section A- Comparative Analysis and International Politics : The broader areas

· Comparative Governments
· Theoretical Aspects of International Politics
· International and Regional Organizations
· Global Concerns like gender justice, environment, human rights, terrorism, democracy etc.

For the preparation of this section, the candidates may refer to the following books:

· Comparative Government and Politics by J.C.Johari
· Theoretical Aspect of International Politics by Mahendra Kumar
· International Politics by Prakash Chandra
· Comparative Government and Politics by Ronald H.Chilcote
· Comparative Government and Politics: An Introduction by Rod Hague, Martin Harrop and Shaun Breslin

Section B- India and the World : The broader areas
· India’s relations with the neighbouring countries
· India and the Super powers
· India’s relations with Latin America and Africa
· India’s Nuclear Policy

The candidates will have to rely mostly on journals, magazines and newspapers to prepare for this part. The candidates may refer
· World Focus (Monthly journal)
· India’s Foreign Policy: Retrospect and Prospect by Sumit Ganguly (ed.)
· Indian Foreign Policy by V.P.Dutt
· Indian Foreign Policy by Arihant Publications
· Frontline
· Any leading national newspaper.


GENERAL STUDIES

INDIAN ECONOMY

Indian Economy by Mishra and Puri
Economic Survey
Yojna
Kurukshetra
Any Yellow newspaper ( Economic Times)

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
Certificate Physical and Human geography by Gohchengleong
NCERT books on Geography

INDIAN POLITY
Indian Constitution by P.M.Bakshi
Our Constitution by Subhash Kashyap
Indian Polity and Constitutional Issues by Dr.Kumud Ranjan Singh ( Arihant c)
Any national newspaper

GENERAL SCIENCE AND SCI & TECH

NCERT books on Physics, Chemistry and Biology
India Year Book- 2010

INDIAN HISTORY
NCERT books on History
Freedom Struggle by Bipin Chandra

CURRENT AFFAIRS & GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

India year book- 2010
Manorama year book
Lucent’s general knowledge
Any competitive magazine
Any national newspaper

Strategy Political Science for IAS Mains

KNOW YOUR OPTIONAL
POLITICAL SCIENCE AND INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Political Science and International Relations is one of the popular optional subjects for the Civil Services examination. It is assumed that the subject is too vast to prepare from the UPSC examination’s perspective, but it is a misconception. The fact lies that strategically Political Science is one of the safest optional subjects for the said examination. The subject covers a wide gamut of areas such as- Indian Constitution and its Political System; International Institutions and foreign policy of India which prove to be very useful in the General Studies also. It also covers a wide gamut of aspects like globalization, liberalization, environmental issues, human rights, International Monetary Institutions (IMF, World Bank, WTO) which are important aspects of the General Studies paper in the contemporary times. International Institutions like United Nations and its organs and agencies, regional organizations like the European Union, SAARC, NAFTA, and African Union which find a place in the syllabus of Political Science form an essential ingredient of the General Studies sections. Thus a candidate opting for Political Science and International Relations in the main examination will not have to study separately these sections as part of his preparation. Apart from this, the candidate’s perspective and approach will be definitely different from others and will help them in their Essay paper and also in the personality test.

The million dollar question is – how to prepare for the optional? What will be the best strategy so that we will get more marks in this optional paper? A glance on the syllabus of Political Science and International Relations and the analysis of the questions asked during the last ten years will help us to answer these questions and develop a good strategy for the said examination.


The Mains syllabus is divided into 2 papers.

Paper- I

Section A- Political Theory and Thought: The broader areas
· Concepts and theories
· Indian Political Thought
· Western Political Thought

Section B- Indian Government and Politics: The broader areas
· Indian Nationalist Movement
· Indian Constitution
· Organs of Government and their actual working
· Functioning and challenges to the Indian Democracy

In the examination, eight questions are asked from this paper. Questions 1 and 5 are compulsory and the candidate has to answer three out of the rest six questions. The aim of the candidate will be to answer three long questions (600 words each) and six short questions. In section A, In question number1, out of four short questions, the candidate has to answer three. Most of the questions are in the form of statements which needs comments of the candidates. An analysis of the question papers of last ten years presents before us a trend that most of the questions asked are from the units dealing with Thinkers (both Indian as well as western), Theories of State and Ideologies. Out of questions 3, 4 and 5, the candidate has the choice of answering one or two questions. In these questions also there is a definite trend and at least two questions are asked from the thinkers (Indian as well as western). Thus, based on the scientific analysis of the questions asked in the last ten years, the best strategy for the mains examination for answering section A is to concentrate on the units of Indian and Western Political thinkers, Theories of State and ideologies.

For the preparation of this section, the candidates may refer to the following books:

· Political Thought by C.L.Wayper
· A History of Political Theory by George Sabine.
· Politics by Andrew Heywood
· Foundations of Indian Political Thought by V.R.Mehta
· Indian Political Thought by V.P.Verma
· Political Theory: Ideas and Concepts by Sushila Ramaswamy
· Political Science by DR. Kumud Ranjan Singh (Arihant Publications)
· Political Theory by O.P.Gauba

In section B, In question number5, out of four short questions, the candidate has to answer three. An analysis of the question papers of last ten years presents before us a trend that one question is asked from Indian Freedom Movement section and the rest three from the Indian Constitution. Out of questions 6, 7 and 8, the candidate has the choice of answering one or two questions. In these questions also there is a definite trend and at least two questions are asked from the Indian Constitution and the working of Indian democracy, e.g., Judicial Activism, Panchayati Raj institutions, decline of Parliament, tension areas in Centre- State Relations etc. Thus, based on the scientific analysis of the questions asked in the last ten years, the best strategy for the mains examination for answering section B is to concentrate on the units of Indian Freedom Movement, Indian Constitution and its working. For the preparation of this section, the candidates may refer to the following books, magazines and newspapers:

· Our Constitution by Subhash Kashyap
· Constitution of India by P.M. Bakshi
· Modern India by Bipin Chandra
· Indian Constitutional Law by M.P.Jain
· Indian Polity and Constitutional Issues by DR. Kumud Ranjan Singh (Arihant Publications)
· Indian Political System edited by M.P.Singh and Himanshu Roy
· Frontline
· India Today
· Any leading national newspaper.

Paper- II

Section A- Comparative Analysis and International Politics : The broader areas
· Comparative Governments
· Theoretical Aspects of International Politics
· International and Regional Organizations
· Global Concerns like gender justice, environment, human rights, terrorism, democracy etc.

Section B- India and the World : The broader areas
· India’s relations with the neighbouring countries
· India and the Super powers
· India’s relations with Latin America and Africa
· India’s Nuclear Policy

Like paper I, eight questions are asked from this paper also. Questions 1 and 5 are compulsory and the candidate has to answer three out of the rest six questions. The aim of the candidate will be to answer three long questions (600 words each) and six short questions. In section A, In question number1, out of four short questions, the candidate has to answer three. An analysis of the question papers of last ten years presents before us a trend that one question is asked from Approaches to Comparative Government and Politics section and the rest three from the theories of International Politics, concepts and issues in international politics. Out of questions 3, 4 and 5, the candidate has the choice of answering one or two questions. In these questions also there is a definite trend and at least one question is asked from the theories of international politics or concepts, one from the international organizations(like the U.N. and its agencies) and one from the dynamics of international politics e.g., the emerging global order, relevance of NAM, globalization etc. Thus, based on the scientific analysis of the questions asked in the last ten years, the best strategy for the mains examination for answering the questions in this section is to concentrate on the units of Approaches to the study of comparative government and politics, Concepts of International politics, Theories of International Politics, Globalization and International and Regional Organizations. For the preparation of this section, the candidates may refer to the following books:

· Comparative Government and Politics by J.C.Johari
· Theoretical Aspect of International Politics by Mahendra Kumar
· International Politics by Prakash Chandra
· Comparative Government and Politics by Ronald H.Chilcote
· Political Science by Arihant Publications
· Comparative Government and Politics: An Introduction by Rod Hague, Martin Harrop and Shaun Breslin

In section B, In question number 5, out of four short questions, the candidate has to answer three. Out of questions 6, 7 and 8, the candidate has the choice of answering one or two questions. In these questions also there is a definite trend and at least one question is asked on India’s relations with neighbors, one question on India’s relation with a Superpower. Thus, based on the scientific analysis of the questions asked in the last ten years, the best strategy for the mains examination for answering section B is to concentrate on the units of India and its Neighbours, India and Superpowers, and dynamics of India’s foreign policy. As this is a dynamic paper, the candidates must be aware of the recent developments in international arena. The candidates will have to rely mostly on journals, magazines and newspapers to prepare for this part. The candidates may refer
· World Focus (Monthly journal)
· India’s Foreign Policy: Retrospect and Prospect by Sumit Ganguly (ed.)
· Indian Foreign Policy by V.P.Dutt
· Indian Foreign Policy by Arihant Publications
· Frontline
· Any leading national newspaper.
By now, the candidates must have become acquainted with the types of questions asked in the Civil Services (Main) examination in the Political Science and International Relations subject. . The most important thing that a candidate should keep in mind is that Civil Services examination does not need scholastic dynamism but a right approach. Remember Smart Work is the key to success and knowing what to study and what not to study is smart work. So, follow the strategy discussed above and come out with flying colours.
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Good Luck!